PDA

View Full Version : FB Parlay question


MLBaseball
September 26th, 2001, 01:03 AM
Just remembered that I had a question I was hoping I might get an answer to regarding wagering on football.

Let's take this past Monday night FB game between Green Bay and Washington. Let's say that the 1st half line was GreenBay -4 and the full game spread was -10. Is it a legitimate bet to parlay the 1st half bet with the full game bet?

Result: 2 game parlay:
Green Bay 1st half-4
Green Bay -10

I always thought that the 1st half bet was completely seperate from the full game bet and thus parlaying the two would be acceptable. I mean, logically a team could definitely cover the halftime spread and end up NOT covering the full game spread and vice-versa.

In no way am I trying to be an abrasive fool. I usually only bet on baseball so 1st half betting is a new area for me. So, if I'm wrong about this then I am wrong-which I probably am. I just wanted to make sure that the information I received was correct (I was told that the above 2 game parlay situation was an illegal play-no matter where I went- and had some of my winning wagers canceled). Would appreciate some help! Thanks

Mark

Glenn
September 26th, 2001, 06:54 AM
Welcome to the EE forums, Mark. Thanks for providing info on TSB, sure hope your payout is hassle-free. As for the parlay question, I don't know of any books that let you do that, but that doesn't mean there aren't books out there who allow it. Bottom line: it's up to the book and their rules.

Allan
September 26th, 2001, 10:21 AM
Mark,

I don't know of any book that will accept that parlay.

It is a parlay where both sides are related.
If one side wins, it is more likely than not that the other side will win also.

The books will accept parlays only on two independent, unrelated events.

BobbyAWS
September 27th, 2001, 06:56 PM
<font face="Verdana, Arial" size="2">Originally posted by Allan:
The books will accept parlays only on two independent, unrelated events.</font>

That sentence is mostly correct, but it's missing one word: "USUALLY".

Everybody takes side-to-total parlays (favorite-to-over, or dog-to-under), unless the spread is very high or the total is very low.

But your example (parlaying Packers to Packers) takes it too far.

Every book decides for themselves how much lee-way they will allow. In the game you mentioned, we let players parlay Ahman Green's rush yards over to Stephen Davis' rush yards under. Most books wouldn't take a parlay like that, because if one happens, it clearly increases the likelihood of the other. However, we don't feel that they are so closely related that merely doing this overcomes the juice (though clearly it reduces a players disadvantage), so we allow it.

Favre over to Freeman over is another matter.

Bobby